Posted: Submitted by Xedi on 1 July 2008 - 11:50pm. |
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Joined: 2007-10-03
Posts: 397 |
I'm reading a proof of the Open Mapping Theorem, and it says at the very beginning :
To prove that A is an open mapping (ie that open sets are mapped to open sets), it suffices to show that :
(where I don't see that at all, where does that come from ? |
Posted: 2 July 2008 - 1:24am |
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Joined: 2006-10-01
Posts: 432 |
That's just the magic of linearity- by adding vectors and multiplying by scalars, we can get any closed ball we want from the contents of the original one. The process of translation/dilation by a fixed (non-zero) scalar will not affect the topology. On the other hand, I fear your assumptions may be a little off- try the natural inclusion |
Posted: 2 July 2008 - 1:25am |
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Joined: 2007-10-03
Posts: 397 |
Ah, I figured it out. Suppose that r is small enough so that Then For any open set We then have that Not totally sure why we're using the closed unit ball at the beginning though, maybe just for convenience in the rest of the proof, I suppose any neighborhood of the unit ball would've done ? Edit : Ah, I see you answered Tom, yes indeed surjective is the correct assumption to make. And that example with the natural inclusion made me realise why the theorem is true, thanks. |
Posted: 2 July 2008 - 7:55am |
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Joined: 2007-10-17
Posts: 109 |
Oh it's so nice to know that you're still there for us Tom, for the time being at least. Will you have much time left for us when you're off doing guage theory etc..? |
Posted: 2 July 2008 - 10:24am |
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Joined: 2006-10-10
Posts: 520 |
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Posted: 2 July 2008 - 10:44am |
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Joined: 2007-10-01
Posts: 179 |
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Posted: 3 July 2008 - 2:41am |
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Joined: 2006-11-02
Posts: 1090 |
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Posted: 1 September 2008 - 1:09am |
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Joined: 2006-11-02
Posts: 1090 |
[wheel] P.S. Why was the GCSE question thread deleted? |